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Topics:
Breast Cancer
•
Medical Oncology
•
Breast Cancer, Non-metastatic
Considering the results of the I-SPY2 trial discussed at ASCO 2025, what would be your approach to treating a T1cN0 (tumor 1.5-1.9cm) young, fit patient? NACT THP x4 or surgery upfront?
Related Questions
Given the HELEN-006 trial results, under what circumstances, if any, would you consider de-escalated neoadjuvant therapy in HER2-positive breast cancer?
How do the results of INSEMA and SOUND impact the decision of omitting SLND in young women with breast cancer and offering adjuvant RT to patients who would otherwise be candidates for omission?
Would you offer adjuvant endocrine therapy for a postmenopausal female with stage III triple positive multicentric breast cancer (DCIS and invasive ductal carcinoma) s/p neoadjuvant TCHP followed by bilateral mastectomy with no residual disease?
Would you offer adjuvant AC + pembrolizumab for a triple negative breast cancer patient whose tumor progressed on carboplatin + paclitaxel + pembrolizumab on KEYNOTE-522 and required urgent surgery (ypT3 ypN0)?
Would you offer adjuvant endocrine therapy to a patient with a history of ER-positive DCIS, s/p bilateral mastectomy, now with chest wall recurrence of DCIS four years later?
What is the preferred duration of adjuvant aromatase inhibitor therapy in patients with triple positive breast cancer?
Would you offer adjuvant chemotherapy for a pT1c triple negative invasive papillary carcinoma of breast?
What neoadjuvant chemotherapy do you suggest for a rapidly growing triple-negative breast cancer?
How do you approach the RxPonder data in premenopausal women with ER/PR+, HER2 negative, pN1, many of whom now qualify for CDK 4/6 inhibitors in adjuvant setting besides endocrine therapy (+/- OFS) if the RS 0-13 and 14-25?
In patients with ATM heterozygous mutation, do you prefer aromatase inhibitor over tamoxifen for adjuvant endocrine therapy?
