Register
Community
Overview
Experts
Editors
Fellows
Code of conduct
Company
About Us
FAQs
Privacy Policy
Terms of Use
Careers
Programs
News
News Releases
Press Coverage
Publications
Blog
Contact Us
Sign in
Topics:
Cardiology
•
Interventional Cardiology
Following left main bifurcation stenting, do you routinely proceed with kissing balloon inflation of the side branch, either LCx or LAD?
Answer from: at Academic Institution
It depends on the technique used; most crush based techniques require kissing balloon inflation.
Sign in or Register to read more
Answer from: at Community Practice
Simple answer, yes. Complexities exist that could modify the approach, but in general, ensuring the bifurcation is maximally dilated is my preferred technique.
Sign in or Register to read more
Answer from: at Academic Institution
Yes
Sign in or Register to read more
Answer from: at Community Practice
Most of the time but again depends on lesson and which technique I used.
Sign in or Register to read more
Answer from: at Community Practice
It is ideal to do it. Sometimes, however, it may not be feasible.
Sign in or Register to read more
20782
20992
21415
21483
21488
Related Questions
Would you consider switching choice of P2Y12 inhibitor for patients with ISR (non-ACS presentation), with acceptable bleeding risk?
What is your preferred anticoagulation/antiplatelet regimen for younger patients presenting with ACS, found to have an acute thrombotic event requiring aspiration thrombectomy without need for stent deployment?
What is your preferred method of lesion interrogation for intermediate left main coronary artery stenosis?
What is the best approach for single vessel mid-LAD CTO in patient with preserved EF and no anginal symptoms?
What is your standard approach (i.e. choice of medication, type of sheath) in the cath lab to reduce the likelihood of radial artery spasm?
What is your approach to counseling a patient with stable but severe multivessel coronary disease if the patient does not wish to undergo bypass surgery?
Given that high coronary calcium scores portend significantly increased cardiac mortality rates over 5-6 years, is there any data to support performing coronary angiography when the score is very high, e.g. over 1000, even in asymptomatic patients with no objective evidence of ischemia?
How do you view the balance between opting for percutaneous coronary intervention and prioritizing optimal medical therapy as the initial treatment choice for patients with stable angina?
Is there emerging and compelling enough evidence to maintain patients on P2Y12i monotherapy (in lieu of aspirin) following completion of DAPT?
What is a reasonable hemoglobin goal for patients with chronic anemia presenting with acute MI?