Register
Community
Overview
Experts
Editors
Fellows
Code of conduct
AI Guidelines for Physicians
Company
About Us
FAQs
Privacy Policy
Terms of Use
Careers
Programs
News
News Releases
Press Coverage
Publications
Blog
Contact Us
Sign in
Please select the option that best describes you:
Topics:
Cardiology
•
Interventional Cardiology
•
Hospital Medicine
Following left main bifurcation stenting, do you routinely proceed with kissing balloon inflation of the side branch, either LCx or LAD?
Answer from: at Community Practice
It depends on the technique used; most crush based techniques require kissing balloon inflation.
Comments
at The George Washington University Hospital
Routinely, yes.
14471
Sign In
or
Register
to read more
Answer from: at Community Practice
Simple answer, yes. Complexities exist that could modify the approach, but in general, ensuring the bifurcation is maximally dilated is my preferred technique.
Sign In
or
Register
to read more
Answer from: at Academic Institution
Yes
Sign In
or
Register
to read more
Answer from: at Community Practice
It is ideal to do it. Sometimes, however, it may not be feasible.
Sign In
or
Register
to read more
Answer from: at Community Practice
Most of the time but again depends on lesson and which technique I used.
Sign In
or
Register
to read more
Answer from: at Community Practice
Ideally, yes.
Sign In
or
Register
to read more
Answer from: at Community Practice
The answer is yes. One must do kissing balloons after complex LM bifurcation stenting unless it is technically not possible.
Sign In
or
Register
to read more
20782
20992
21415
21488
21483
22325
26106
Related Questions
Do you pursue stress testing before discharge for a patient admitted with chest pain who has negative serial high-sensitivity troponins and a low HEART score?
How do you adjust holding parameters for beta blockers based on a patients baseline heart rate and blood pressure?
What is your diagnostic and therapeutic approach to hospitalized patients with persistent hypotension (MAP <65) of uncertain etiology, but no evidence of hypoperfusion or shock physiology?
What is your stepwise approach to the management of culprit STEMI lesions with very high thrombotic burden in spite of multiple runs of mechanical thrombectomy?
What clinical features in suspected ANOCA push you toward proceeding directly to invasive coronary function testing rather than empirically escalating antianginal therapy first?
How do you think about using contraction alkalosis as a mark of achieving goal diuresis?
Do you routinely condition the implantation of a microaxial flow pump upon echocardiographic exclusion of left ventricular thrombus?
When telemetry or ECG shows a newly prolonged QTc (e.g., >500 ms) in an otherwise stable hospitalized patient, how aggressively do you modify medications, electrolytes, or monitoring?
In a patient with decompensated heart failure requiring urgent non-cardiac surgery, how much volume optimization do you pursue preoperatively, and at what point does the risk of further surgical delay outweigh the benefit of continued diuresis?
Do you continue beta-blocker therapy beyond 1 year after myocardial infarction in a stable patient with normal LV systolic function when the only remaining indication is mildly elevated blood pressure that could be managed with an alternative agent?
Routinely, yes.