Topics:
Gastrointestinal Cancers • Medical Oncology
How would you approach a patient who underwent a right colectomy for a polyp with high-risk dysplasia with pathology showing no primary but one of the LN showing adenocarcinoma suggestive of GI primary?
Is there a role for ctDNA in this case? Would the approach change if the patient is MSI-H?
Answer from: Medical Oncologist at Academic Institution
This would be a low risk stage-III colon cancer.I find this nomogram/tool on risks helpful in having conversations with patients with stage-3 colon cancer.Sobrero et al., PMID 32892120 ”Large differences in 5-year DFS rate were observed among the subgroups, ranging from 89% (T1N1a) to 31%...
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