How would you approach anticoagulation for newly recurrent VTE on progestin-only therapy?  

Prior history of OCP-related PE treated with time-limited anticoagulation, and was switched to progesterone-only based hormonal contraception. Would you consider this recurrence event hormonally induced and discontinue transdermal progestin, or would you consider this an unprovoked event? Would you consider continuing on progesterone-only hormonal contraception, if maintaining on anticoagulation and does prophylactic vs therapeutic dosing matter?