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Topics:
Rheumatology
•
Vasculitis
•
Hospital Medicine
What is your approach to immunosuppression in an adult patient with biopsy-proven IgA vasculitis who has new and severe acute renal failure requiring dialysis?
Related Questions
How would you approach EGPA with renal involvement that was on maintenance Rituximab, last infusion two months ago and develops new onset liver involvement?
How would you approach the evaluation and management of isolated vasculitis with aneurysms involving the segmental hepatic arteries causing hepatic hemorrhage in an otherwise healthy patient in his 80s?
How do you approach the management of digital ischemia in a critically ill patient with infection, but no evidence of active rheumatologic disease?
What would be your approach to managing severe ANCA-associated vasculitis in a patient who is also septic from a bacterial infection?
Would you give IVIG for Rituximab induced immunodeficiency in patients with reduced kidney function from renal GPA?
Would you consider tocilizumab for treatment of GCA in patients with underlying CLL (not requiring therapy)?
Should patients starting cyclophosphamide be screened routinely for latent tuberculosis (TB)?
How would you approach a patient with EGPA, with main manifestations of asthma, nasal polyposis, and mononeuritis multiplex, who has clinically responded to rituximab, yet has persistently high eosinophilia (>40%)?
How would you approach the upfront management of a patient with acute unilateral vision loss with strong clinical risk factors for both cardioembolic stroke and GCA if an expedited MRI is not possible due to the presence of an AICD?
Do you utilize temporal artery ultrasound in your practice?
