Please select the option that best describes you:

Would the presence of only mature teratoma on orchiectomy specimen lead you to consider upfront RPLND followed by adjuvant chemotherapy as opposed to upfront chemotherapy in a patient with bulky para-aortic nodal disease (cN3) and AFP/beta-HCG elevation?  

What is your preferred sequence of therapy?



Answer from: Medical Oncologist at Academic Institution
Sign in or Register to read more

Answer from: Medical Oncologist at Community Practice
Sign in or Register to read more