Would the presence of only mature teratoma on orchiectomy specimen lead you to consider upfront RPLND followed by adjuvant chemotherapy as opposed to upfront chemotherapy in a patient with bulky para-aortic nodal disease (cN3) and AFP/beta-HCG elevation?
What is your preferred sequence of therapy?
Answer from: Medical Oncologist at Academic Institution
If there is an elevated AFP or hCG, by definition, he has metastatic germ cell cancer and needs chemo initially, followed almost certainly by post-chemo RPLND done by a skilled and experienced urologist.
Answer from: Medical Oncologist at Community Practice
The patient almost certainly has a malignant nonseminomatous component with the elevated markers (assuming they are unequivocally elevated). With elevated markers, I would start with chemotherapy with the aim of completing it prior to a post-chemo RPLND. Very rarely, and often in the setting of mali...