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Topics:
Breast Cancer
•
Medical Oncology
•
Her2+
•
Breast Cancer, Non-metastatic
•
premenopausal
Would you consider anthracycline based neoadjuvant therapy for ER negative, HER2 positive inflammatory breast cancer in a premenopausal female given the subset not adequately represented in non-anthracycline regimen trials?
Related Questions
How would you treat a patient with T1c HR-, HER2+ breast cancer, stage IV, with involvement of multiple bilateral axillary nodes and no evidence of distant metastasis?
Would you give adjuvant endocrine therapy to a premenopausal woman with early stage node positive breast cancer that was ER negative, PR positive (60%) and HER2 positive?
For Her2+ Stage I T1cN0 patients where neoadjuvant therapy is desired to select out patients for post-operative TDM1, is it reasonable to de-escalate neoadjuvant therapy to THP as opposed to TCHP?
How do you manage steroid refractory pneumonitis due to docetaxel or trastuzumab?
What would you recommend regarding HRT use in a patient with history of HR-, HER2+ breast cancer dealing with post-menopausal symptoms?
Would you treat a patient with cT2 ER+/HER2+ breast cancer with neoadjuvant HER2 directed therapy if HER2 positivity is group 3?
In a patient with ER+/HER2+ breast cancer with significant residual disease post neoadjuvant TCHP, is there a role of using CDK4/6i in the adjuvant setting with T-DM1?
Would you offer systemic therapy (TH) to a patient with HER2+ (3+), HR- high grade microinvasive breast cancer with single focus or multifocal?
How should we think about endocrine resistance in patients with inherited germline mutations such as BRCA, CHEK2, etc.?
Would you offer adjuvant olaparib to a male patient with HR+, HER2- T2N0 breast cancer with a BRCA2 germline mutation following mastectomy who is not a candidate for adjuvant chemotherapy?
