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Please select the option that best describes you:
Topics:
Breast Cancer
•
Medical Oncology
•
Breast Cancer, Non-metastatic
Would you offer an adjuvant aromatase inhibitor following capecitabine to a post menopausal patient with ER 0%/PR 5%/HER2 0 with poor tolerance to neoadjuvant chemotherapy with residual ypT2N0M0?
Related Questions
Is there evidence supporting the adjuvant use of neratinib in patients with high-risk, hormone receptor–positive, HER2-negative breast cancer that harbors an activating HER2 mutation?
Do you check AMH levels to decide on adjuvant chemotherapy in premenopausal patients with node-positive ER+ breast cancer?
How do you approach the RxPonder data in premenopausal women with ER/PR+, HER2 negative, pN1, many of whom now qualify for CDK 4/6 inhibitors in adjuvant setting besides endocrine therapy (+/- OFS) if the RS 0-13 and 14-25?
How would you approach treatment for a postmenopausal patient who was treated more than 5 years ago with AC-T for TNBC, and who now presents with ipsilateral, locally advanced, node-positive TNBC, but has severe residual neuropathy from prior taxane exposure?
What are your top takeaways in Breast Cancer from ASCO 2025?
How will LORETTA and COMET trials influence treatment of low-risk DCIS?
How would you treat a T2N1 ER 90%, PR 10%, HER-2 negative breast cancer in premenopausal women with a tumor abutting the pectoralis fascia with loss of fat plane, with a concern for a positive surgical margin?
How do you approach the discussion about the potential risks of radiation therapy exposure and the development of secondary malignancies for patients with germline BRCA1/2 mutations?
Would you consider adding adjuvant ribociclib for a patient who has already received 2 years of endocrine therapy and is eligible for ribociclib according to the NATALEE trial?
Would you add pertuzumab to adjuvant therapy for a premenopausal female with HR+, HER2+ IDC with N1mic disease?
