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Topics:
Rheumatology
•
Vasculitis
What is your approach to patients with GCA who have difficulty with prednisone weaning (20mg) despite use of tocilizumab?
Is there benefit of addition of a DMARD such as methotrexate? Would you revisit diagnosis?
Related Questions
How do you approach an older male with a chronic and persistent granulomatous cutaneous medium vessel vasculitis that has been unresponsive/worsened on high dose steroids, cyclophosphamide, and rituximab immunosuppressive agents with a thorough and unremarkable serologic, infectious, and imaging work-up?
What is your approach to immunosuppression in an adult patient with biopsy-proven IgA vasculitis who has new and severe acute renal failure requiring dialysis?
How would you approach workup and management of a patient who has signs and symptoms consistent with GPA found to have a cavitary lung lesion however is ANCA negative and has no kidney disease.
Do you offer biosimilar tocilizumab as an alternative to subcutaneous or infusion brand-name tocilizumab when treating GCA?
How do you approach the management of aortitis in patients with ANCA-associated vasculitis?
How long do you continue PJP prophylaxis in a patient with GPA who is able to wean steroids and remains only on rituximab for maintenance therapy?
Would you approach a patient with idiopathic bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and episcleritis as atypical Cogan’s syndrome even in the absence of MRI/ MRA changes and minimal elevation of inflammation markers?
How long do you continue immunosuppression in patients with Behcet's who have a history of mucocutaneous and ocular disease, but are now in remission?
How do you approach management of a young adult after ascending thoracic aneurysm repair with biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation (no other vascular involvement, PET scan normal)?
How would you approach clinically isolated aortitis in a patient with recent head and neck cancer currently in remission?