How would you approach anticoagulation for a newly recurrent VTE on progestin-only therapy?  

Prior history of OCP-related PE treated with time-limited anticoagulation, and was switched to progesterone-only-based hormonal contraception. Would you consider this recurrence event hormonally induced and discontinue transdermal progestin, or would you consider this an unprovoked event? Would you consider continuing on progesterone-only hormonal contraception if maintaining on anticoagulation, and does prophylactic vs therapeutic dosing matter?