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Topics:
Infectious Disease
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General Infectious Disease
What is your preferred empiric antibiotic escalation for a patient with chorioamnionitis with worsening signs of sepsis on single agent cefoxitin?
Related Questions
For patients with candida species osteomyelitis who have undergone extensive surgical debridement, do you routinely still recommend 6-12 months of antifungal therapy or opt for a shorter duration?
Do you recommend treating Candida albicans on urine culture from an indwelling catheter in a patient with septic shock?
In a patient with CIED lead infection and bacteremia who had blood cultures cleared before CIED extraction, do we still need 72 hrs of documented negative blood cultures obtained post extraction to consider reimplantation and can we do same-time extraction and reimplantation?
Do you recommend treatment of male partners for patients with recurrent bacterial vaginosis?
Do you switch to an alternative agent for C difficile colitis for a patient with suspected infection and positive testing who continues to have >3 watery bowel movements daily despite multiple days of oral vancomycin treatment?
How would you approach a young patient with sickle cell disease without a history of frequent vaso-occlusive crises, admitted with high fever, vague back/flank pain and mild LUQ abdominal tenderness, marked leukocytosis, no respiratory symptoms, and negative chest x-rays and CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast?
What infectious differentials should be considered for a patient with intractable erythema nodosum that is non-responsive to acyclovir and steroids?
How do you typically manage a patient with a single positive blood culture from two sets growing Candida species in a stable patient without prosthetic devices or material?
For patients with spinal hardware infections, in what circumstances do you recommend 12 weeks over 6 weeks of antimicrobial therapy?
Do you routinely use oral vancomycin prophylaxis in patients with a history of CDI who are receiving antibiotics?